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Pass Guaranteed PRMIA - Latest 8020 - ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Latest Exam Test
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PRMIA ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Sample Questions (Q27-Q32):
NEW QUESTION # 27
Ideally, which of the following should be completed as part of the risk assessments of service providers?
- A. A review of the pay levels of the staff supporting the service.
- B. An assessment of a third party should not include its compliance and risk infrastructure, financials, business strategy and operating history.
- C. Onsite visits are not advantageous for understanding the third party's risks and control environment.
- D. An assessment of a third party should include its compliance and risk infrastructure, financials, business strategy and operating history.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM)
PRMIA highlights the importance of conducting thorough due diligence on third-party vendors and service providers.
This includes evaluating compliance programs, risk management frameworks, financial stability, strategic objectives, and operational history.
Key Areas of Third-Party Risk Assessment
Compliance and Risk Infrastructure → Ensures that the provider meets regulatory and security requirements.
Financial Health → Determines whether the provider has the financial stability to support long-term service delivery.
Business Strategy → Helps assess alignment with the organization's risk appetite and goals.
Operating History → Evaluates experience and reliability in delivering services.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
B . An assessment of a third party should not include its compliance and risk infrastructure, financials, business strategy, and operating history.
Incorrect - Ignoring these critical factors increases the risk of working with an unreliable vendor.
C . Onsite visits are not advantageous for understanding the third party's risks and control environment.
Incorrect - Onsite visits are highly valuable as they provide first-hand insights into operational controls. PRMIA encourages risk managers to conduct site visits.
D . A review of the pay levels of the staff supporting the service.
Incorrect - Employee salaries are not a primary risk factor in vendor assessments. The focus should be on the vendor's security, compliance, and operational risks.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM) Guidelines - Details best practices for vendor risk assessments.
Basel Principles on Outsourcing and Third-Party Risk - Provides regulatory guidance on evaluating third-party service providers.
NEW QUESTION # 28
How should Near Misses and Opportunity Costs be treated within Operational Risk?
- A. Reported, Recorded and Analyzed, Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
- B. Recorded and Analyzed. Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
- C. Ignored.
- D. Reported. Recorded and Analyzed. Not Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Near Misses in Operational Risk
A near miss is an event that could have led to a loss but was avoided or mitigated before actual financial impact occurred.
PRMIA emphasizes that near misses should be reported, recorded, and analyzed because they provide valuable insights into potential vulnerabilities in risk controls.
However, since they did not result in actual financial losses, they are not included in the calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
Opportunity Costs in Operational Risk
Opportunity costs refer to the loss of potential gains due to missed strategic opportunities.
These are not directly quantifiable as operational risk losses and are not included in Operational Risk Capital calculations.
PRMIA's Operational Risk Framework states that operational risk is about actual losses rather than theoretical costs.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Ignored.
Incorrect - Near misses and opportunity costs provide valuable insights into operational risk, so they should never be ignored.
B . Recorded and Analyzed. Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
Incorrect - While they should be recorded and analyzed, they are not included in Operational Risk Capital calculations because they do not result in actual losses.
D . Reported, Recorded, and Analyzed, Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
Incorrect - Reporting, recording, and analysis are correct, but they should not be included in capital calculations.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Operational Risk Management Standards - Defines near misses and opportunity costs.
Basel II & III Operational Risk Framework - Outlines the principles of operational risk capital calculations.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Stafford Beers Viable System Model (VSM) has several implementation elements. Which of the following is not one of these?
- A. Governance
- B. Input
- C. Process
- D. Output
Answer: B
Explanation:
Stafford Beer's Viable System Model (VSM)
VSM is a cybernetic model designed to analyze and improve organizational structures.
It consists of five core subsystems that define governance and operations.
Why Answer B is Correct
The VSM does not explicitly include "Input" as a key component.
The key elements of VSM include Governance, Process, and Output, but it does not define "Input" as a standalone concept.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Governance
Correct - Governance is part of VSM and deals with decision-making and oversight.
C . Process
Correct - Process represents the operational functions within VSM.
D . Output
Correct - Output refers to the results of the system's operations.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Governance and Cybernetic Systems Guidelines
Stafford Beer's Viable System Model Framework
NEW QUESTION # 30
An example of Credit Risk events with an Operational Risk component included?
- A. Failure in loan approval process leading to erroneously approved loans.
- B. Ponzi Schemes & Rogue Trading.
- C. Rogue Trading.
- D. Ponzi Schemes.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Step 1: Understanding Credit Risk with an Operational Risk Component
Credit Risk: Risk of loss due to borrower default.
Operational Risk: Risk of loss due to failed internal processes, fraud, or misconduct.
Step 2: Why Option D is Correct
Ponzi Schemes: Fraudulent investment scams disguise credit risk as legitimate lending but collapse when new funds dry up.
Rogue Trading: Traders take unauthorized risks that can lead to credit defaults or massive financial losses.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Failure in loan approval process") → This is an Operational Risk issue, but does not always create Credit Risk.
Option B ("Ponzi Schemes") → Partially correct, but does not include Rogue Trading, which is also a credit risk-related operational failure.
Option C ("Rogue Trading") → Partially correct, but does not include Ponzi Schemes, which are another key example.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Operational Risk Framework - Highlights fraud-based Credit Risk events.
Basel II/III Operational Risk Guidelines - Discusses trading misconduct and credit risk misrepresentation.
Final Conclusion:
Both Ponzi Schemes and Rogue Trading involve credit risk failures caused by operational misconduct, making Option D the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 31
What are some of the deficiencies associated with bottom-up Key Risk Indicators?
- A. Causal affects that are not adequately understood.
- B. Not reported frequently enough.
- C. Lack of granularity.
- D. Mandates from a board that are too restrictive to implement.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Definition of Bottom-Up Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)
Bottom-up KRIs are generated from operational-level data rather than high-level strategic indicators.
They are useful for monitoring localized risks but may fail to capture broad risk drivers.
Key Deficiencies of Bottom-Up KRIs
Lack of clarity on causal relationships - These indicators may detect risk trends but fail to explain root causes.
Focus on micro-level risks - They may miss systemic or enterprise-wide risk interactions.
Why Answer B is Correct
Bottom-up KRIs may indicate changes in risk levels but lack insight into the underlying causes, leading to reactive rather than proactive risk management.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Mandates from a board that are too restrictive to implement.
Incorrect - Board mandates apply to top-down governance, not bottom-up KRIs.
C . Not reported frequently enough.
Incorrect - Reporting frequency is an issue but not the primary deficiency; rather, it's the lack of causal insight.
D . Lack of granularity.
Incorrect - Bottom-up KRIs tend to be highly detailed (granular), making this answer incorrect.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Key Risk Indicator Best Practices
Basel Committee's Risk Measurement and Reporting Framework
NEW QUESTION # 32
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